Last post Aug 18, 2015 12:47 PM by maggiemays
Aug 07, 2015 11:52 AM|maggiemays|LINK
I am working on a development database that has a user defined with read/write and is a member of appExecRole. This user is also part of the connectionstring :
(UID=username;pwd=xyz). My question is this: I see a production copy of this database and when I checked the users on it, this user was not defined, however the connectionstring has the same UID statement as part of it's connectionstring. How is this
working and why does it work? If this isnt defined on the database, where else would it be defined?
Aug 07, 2015 01:18 PM|Siva Krishna Macha|LINK
Cross check if that is the same connection string tag that is really being used for your scenario.
Aug 12, 2015 10:21 PM|Nan Yu|LINK
Hi maggiemays ,
Please help check whether the connectionstring is the using one in production database as other member suggested. And could you please post your connect string , when you want to connect the production copy of this database , are you starting a remote connection
? if not , are you setting Integrated Security property in
connection string? when setting ture(SSPI) the current Windows account credentials are used for authentication.
Aug 18, 2015 12:47 PM|maggiemays|LINK
I found out that they didn't give me the same access on the database in question. once they changed my permissions, I could see the user I thought should exist.
Thanks for your help.